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MCCQE软件版 & MCCQE學習資料

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最新的 MCCQE Part 1 MCCQE 免費考試真題 (Q51-Q56):

問題 #51
A 14-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with a 20-minute history of difficulty breathing that started during a school assembly. She has had similar symptoms 3 times in the last 2 weeks. These episodes develop rapidly and resolve gradually over several minutes. She reports tingling in her fingers and toes. On examination, her vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure
120/80 mm Hg
Heart rate
100/min
Respiratory rate
22/min
Oxygen saturation on room air
95%
Temperature
36.9 °C, orally
Apart from mildly dilated pupils, her examination is otherwise normal. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
• B. Asthma
• C. Pericarditis
• D. Cocaine use
• E. Panic attack

答案：E

解題說明：
This teenager presents with acute-onset dyspnea, paresthesias, and normal physical findings, consistent with a panic attack. Panic attacks often mimic cardiopulmonary pathology but are marked by symptoms like hyperventilation, tingling in the extremities, palpitations, and subjective air hunger with normal vitals and oxygenation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry:
"Panic attacks are characterized by sudden onset of intense fear or discomfort, accompanied by somatic symptoms such as dyspnea, paresthesias, tachycardia, and fear of losing control." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-3: Anxiety Disorders):
"Candidates must recognize panic attacks based on clinical features and differentiate them from cardiopulmonary conditions." Normal O2 saturation and physical exam rule out asthma or pericarditis. Cocaine use would present with more systemic toxicity. PSVT would cause consistent tachycardia.

 

問題 #52
You are caring for a 78-year-old man admitted to hospital for heart failure. On your rounds, he asks why he is not getting better. He has a history of heart failure, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes. He has an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator. This is his fourth admission in the past 6 months for acute decompensation of his heart failure. Between hospital admissions, he reports worsening shortness of breath and a progressive decline in function. Which one of the following is the next best step?

• A. Reassure the patient that his condition will improve with proper medication adherence
• B. Explain the end-stage nature of the patient's illness
• C. Advise the patient to have his defibrillator deactivated

答案：B

解題說明：
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient has end-stage heart failure with frequent hospitalizations, progressive symptoms, and functional decline. The most appropriate next step is to initiate a goals-of-care conversation, including acknowledgment of the prognosis.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Cardiology / Palliative Care:
"In advanced heart failure with recurrent admissions and functional decline, a goals-of-care discussion should be initiated to align treatment with patient values." MCCQE1 Objectives (Cardiology > 34-4 / ELOM > 90-2):
"Candidates must recognize end-stage illness and provide appropriate communication and palliative care planning." Deactivating the defibrillator (B) may be appropriate later but should follow a goals-of-care conversation.
Reassuring (C) ignores the true clinical trajectory.

 

問題 #53
A 40-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with confusion and fever (38.5°C). She has a history of hypothyroidism managed with levothyroxine. Key findings include:
Blood pressure
114/78 mm Hg
Heart rate
85/min
Temperature
38.5°C
Hemoglobin
90 g/L123-157 g/L
Platelet count
25 × 10#/L130-400 × 10#/L
Peripheral blood film
Schistocytes present
Creatinine
200 #mol/L50-90 #mol/L

• A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
• B. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
• C. Cirrhosis
• D. Human immunodeficiency virus
• E. Acute myelogenous leukemia

答案：B

解題說明：
This patient presents with fever, confusion, anemia with schistocytes, thrombocytopenia, and renal impairment - fulfilling the classic pentad of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). TTP is a hematologic emergency requiring plasma exchange.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Hematology, "Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia" Section:
"TTP is a medical emergency. Features include MAHA, thrombocytopenia, renal failure, neurologic symptoms, and fever. Schistocytes on blood film are diagnostic." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-7: Hematologic Disorders):
"Candidates must urgently recognize TTP and initiate emergent plasma exchange therapy." AML (B) does not present with schistocytes. HIV (C) can cause thrombocytopenia but not MAHA. ITP (D) causes isolated thrombocytopenia without anemia or schistocytes.

 

問題 #54
A 38-year-old man is brought by his wife to the Emergency Department with fatigue, dizziness, and nausea after completing a hiking tour on a hot, humid day. His wife became worried after he had collapsed. He has been sweating heavily and vomited twice on the drive in. His medical history is unremarkable, and he takes no medications. His vital signs on arrival are as follows:
Blood pressure
85/57 mm Hg
Heart rate
120/min
Respiratory rate
18/min
Temperature
40.1 °C
Oxygen saturation
95%, room air
-
On physical examination, the patient's skin is dry, flushed, and warm to the touch. He has a diffuse erythematous papular rash. Findings of a thorough physical examination are otherwise unremarkable. An electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia. Which one of the following is the best next step?

• A. Serum C-reactive protein test
• B. Serum creatine kinase test
• C. Serum thyrotropin (thyroid-stimulating hormone)
• D. Blood cultures
• E. Computed tomography of the head

答案：B

解題說明：
This patient has classic features of exertional heat stroke-hyperthermia, hypotension, CNS symptoms (collapse), and hot, dry skin. A key complication of heat stroke is rhabdomyolysis, which can cause renal failure. Serum creatine kinase (CK) is the best next diagnostic step to confirm muscle breakdown.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Emergency Medicine, "Environmental Exposures":
"In heat stroke, check for rhabdomyolysis (#CK), renal impairment, and coagulopathy. Prompt cooling and hydration are critical." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 59-3: Environmental and Toxic Exposures):
"Candidates must recognize heat-related illnesses and investigate for complications such as rhabdomyolysis and acute kidney injury." CT head (C) is not indicated unless persistent neurological symptoms. TSH (B), CRP (D), and blood cultures (E) are irrelevant to acute exertional hyperthermia.

 

問題 #55
A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-hour history of severe left flank pain.
Her vital signs are as follows:
* Heart rate: 94/min
* Blood pressure: 130/80 mm Hg
* Temperature: 37.3 °C
A non-contrast computed tomography shows a 6 mm stone in the distal left ureter with mild associated hydronephrosis. In addition to appropriate analgesia, which one of the following is the best next step?

• A. Administer an alpha blocker
• B. Increase intravenous fluids
• C. Provide reassurance
• D. Refer for urology consultation
• E. Prescribe antibiotics

答案：A

解題說明：
Alpha blockers such as tamsulosin can facilitate the passage of ureteral stones, especially those between 5-10 mm. This is part of medical expulsive therapy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Urology, Nephrolithiasis:
"Alpha blockers help relax the ureteral smooth muscle and improve stone passage in symptomatic distal ureteral stones." MCCQE1 Objectives - Surgery > Urologic Emergencies:
"Candidates should initiate medical expulsive therapy for ureteral stones under 10 mm with alpha blockers." Reassurance alone (A) is inadequate. Antibiotics (B) are not indicated without infection. IV fluids (E) do not significantly aid stone passage. Urology consult (D) is not needed unless there's infection, intractable pain, or obstruction.

 

問題 #56
......

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