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Highly Rated Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management PDF Dumps

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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q13-Q18):

NEW QUESTION # 13
A release manager has decided on a policy of not allowing users to choose to accept software updates. What is this an example of?

A. A 'push' approach
B. Continuous integration
C. Continuous delivery
D. A 'pull' approach

Answer: A

Explanation:
TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument explains the difference between push and pull approaches in release management:"In a push approach, updates are deployed to users without giving them a choice, often to ensure compliance or security. In a pull approach, users can choose when to adopt updates" (Section 3.2.3).
* Option A (A 'pull' approach) is incorrect because a pull approach allows users to choose when to accept updates, which contradicts the scenario.
* Option B (A 'push' approach) is correct, as the policy of not allowing users to choose means the updates are automatically deployed to them, fitting the definition of a push approach.
* Option C (Continuous delivery) and Option D (Continuous integration) are development practices, not release deployment strategies. Continuous delivery involves making releases available frequently, but it doesn't specify whether users must accept them (push) or can choose (pull).
The scenario describes a push approach, making B the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 14
Which is a key input to the release planning and coordination process?

A. Details about the users who will be affected
B. Notifications to stakeholders about the release status
C. Documented findings on the success of a release
D. Updates to the continual improvement register

Answer: A

Explanation:
The release planning and coordination process in ITIL 4 Release Management requires inputs toensure effective planning and execution of releases. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument specifies:"Key inputs to release planning and coordination include details about the users who will be affected, as this helps in scheduling and communicating the release to minimize disruption"(Section 3.2.1).
* Option A (Documented findings on the success of a release) is an output of a release evaluation, not an input to planning.
* Option B (Updates to the continual improvement register) may inform long-term improvements but isn' t a direct input to planning a specific release.
* Option C (Details about the users who will be affected) is a critical input, as understanding the user base helps tailor the release schedule, communication, and impact mitigation strategies.
* Option D (Notifications to stakeholders about the release status) is an output of the release process, not an input to planning.
The correct answer is C, as user details are essential for effective release planning and coordination.

NEW QUESTION # 15
A service provider is conducting a capability assessment of the release management practice. It has been found that although the practice's performance is regularly reported and reviewed, most recommendations based on the reports are never implemented. What is the MAXIMUM capability level that could be given to the release management practice?

A. Level 3
B. Level 2
C. Level 5
D. Level 4

Answer: B

Explanation:
The ITIL capability model assesses practices based on their maturity and ability to improve. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument outlines the capability levels:"Level 2 (Managed) indicates that the practice is planned and tracked, with performance regularly reported. Level 3 (Defined) requires standardized processes and the ability to improve based on feedback. If recommendations from performance reviews are not implemented, the practice cannot achieve Level 3"(Section 5.2).
* The scenario indicates that performance is reported and reviewed (meeting Level 2 requirements), but recommendations are not implemented, meaning there's no improvement or standardization beyond basic management.
* Level 3 requires consistent improvement and standardization, which is not met due to the lack of implementation.
* Levels 4 (Quantitatively Managed) and 5 (Optimizing) require even higher maturity, including data- driven improvements and continuous optimization, which are not applicable here.
The maximum capability level is A (Level 2), as the practice is managed but not improving.

NEW QUESTION # 16
What is a description of a release?

A. All updated service versions that are mandatory for users
B. The guidelines for collating two or more changes
C. A set of new service features that will benefit users
D. The repeated building and testing of code leading to deployment

Answer: C

Explanation:
In ITIL 4, a release is defined as the output of the release management practice that is made available to users.
TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"A release is a version of a service or a set of service components that is made available for use. It often includes new or changed features that deliver value to users"(Section 2.2).
* Option A (A set of new service features that will benefit users) aligns with the definition, as a release typically includes new or changed features intended to provide value to users.
* Option B (The repeated building and testing of code) describes a development process (e.g., continuous integration), not the release itself.
* Option C (All updated service versions that are mandatory for users) is incorrect because releases are not always mandatory; ITIL 4 allows for push or pull approaches.
* Option D (Guidelines for collating changes) describes a process or policy, not the release itself.
The correct description of a release is a set of features or components made available for use, making A the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 17
An organization's project and operational teams are concerned that individual releases involve some unnecessary activities and are missing some important activities. What is the BEST action for the organization to take to improve this situation?

A. Introduce proactive communication channels for the service provider to make release management processes more efficient
B. Ensure that release management key metrics are integrated with metrics relating to deployment management and change enablement
C. Automate the release management activities together with development activities
D. Review current release models, create additional models where appropriate, and automate where possible

Answer: D

Explanation:
The concern about unnecessary and missing activities in releases points to issues with the release models being used. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument advises:"To address inefficiencies in release processes, such as unnecessary or missing activities, organizations should review current release models, create additional models where appropriate to address gaps, and automate repetitive tasks to improve efficiency"(Section 3.2.2).
* Option A (Introduce proactive communication channels) improves stakeholder engagementbut doesn't directly address the issue of unnecessary or missing activities.
* Option B (Review current release models, create additional models, and automate) directly tackles the problem by refining the release models to eliminate unnecessary activities, add missing ones, and enhance efficiency through automation.
* Option C (Integrate metrics with deployment and change enablement) focuses on performance measurement, not process improvement.
* Option D (Automate with development activities) addresses automation but doesn't specifically tackle the issue of refining release activities.
The correct answer is B, as it directly addresses the root cause by improving release models.

NEW QUESTION # 18
......

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