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Reliable CTPRP Exam Pdf, CTPRP Reliable Test Sample

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Shared Assessments Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Sample Questions (Q289-Q294):

NEW QUESTION # 289
What is the primary goal of managing Fourth-Nth party risks in third-party risk management?

A. To ensure that all entities within the supply chain meet the organization's security standards.
B. To consolidate all third-party relationships into a single management platform.
C. To reduce the overhead costs associated with third-party management.
D. To simplify the compliance reporting process for all external partners.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The primary goal of managing Fourth-Nth party risks is to ensure that all entities within the organization's extended supply chain adhere to the same stringent security and compliance standards as the organization. This is critical to protect the organization's data and systems from vulnerabilities that could be introduced by less secure entities in the supply chain.

NEW QUESTION # 290
How does escorting visitors throughout their visit enhance facility security?

A. It allows visitors to feel more engaged during their visit
B. It offers visitors an informative tour of the facility
C. It creates a more structured visit schedule
D. It prevents unauthorized access and potential security breaches

Answer: D

Explanation:
Escorting visitors throughout their visit prevents unauthorized access and potential security breaches by ensuring that visitors are always accompanied by someone who knows which areas are restricted, reducing the risk of inadvertent or deliberate security violations.

NEW QUESTION # 291
What distinguishes changes to administrator access from changes handled by the change control process?

A. Administrator access changes pertain to user access management, not infrastructure modifications.
B. Changes to administrator access are less critical and therefore do not require rigorous oversight.
C. Administrator access is often temporary, hence it is not tracked by the change control system.
D. They involve alterations to the software development lifecycle, which are outside the scope of change control.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Administrator access changes are managed distinctly from change control processes because they involve user access rights rather than physical or software infrastructure changes that could impact the entire production environment.

NEW QUESTION # 292
Tracking breach, credential exposure and insider fraud/theft alerts is an example of which continuous monitoring technique?

A. Passive and active indicators of compromise
B. Monitoring surface
C. Business intelligence
D. Vulnerabilities

Answer: A

Explanation:
Continuous monitoring is a process of collecting and analyzing data on the performance and security of third-party vendors on an ongoing basis. Continuous monitoring helps to identify and mitigate potential risks, such as data breaches, credential exposures, insider fraud/theft, and other cyber incidents, that may affect the organization and its customers. Continuous monitoring can use various techniques, such as monitoring surface, vulnerabilities, passive and active indicators of compromise, and business intelligence.
Passive and active indicators of compromise are examples of continuous monitoring techniques that track the signs of malicious activity or compromise on the third-party vendor's systems or networks. Passive indicators of compromise are data sources that do not require direct interaction with the target, such as threat intelligence feeds, dark web monitoring, or external scanning. Active indicators of compromise are data sources that require direct interaction with the target, such as penetration testing, malware analysis, or incident response.
Both passive and active indicators of compromise can provide valuable information on the current state and potential threats of the third-party vendor's environment.
The other options are not examples of continuous monitoring techniques that track breach, credential exposure and insider fraud/theft alerts. Monitoring surface is a technique that measures the size and complexity of the third-party vendor's attack surface, such as the number and type of internet-facing assets, domains, and services. Vulnerabilities are a technique that identifies the weaknesses or flaws in the third-party vendor's systems or applications that can be exploited by attackers, such as outdated software, misconfigurations, or unpatched bugs. Business intelligence is a technique that analyzes the business performance and reputation of the third-party vendor, such as financial stability, customer satisfaction, or regulatory compliance. References:
* Guide: Continuous Monitoring for Third-Party Risk
* Continuous Monitoring - Third Party Risk Management
* 12 Ongoing Monitoring Best Practices for Third-Party Risk Management

NEW QUESTION # 293
When setting up a new device at an organization, which of the following is a critical step as outlined in the user responsibility statement?

A. Perform a personal data backup to avoid losing any important information.
B. Wait for the IT department to issue usage instructions before starting any work on the device.
C. Request device customization options from the IT department to enhance personal usability.
D. Ensure the device has the latest security software installed and configured correctly before use.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Ensuring that security software is installed and correctly configured from the beginning is critical in establishing a secure foundation for the device's operations within the organizational environment. This step is crucial to prevent future security incidents.

NEW QUESTION # 294
......

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