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The CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam (CIC) certification exam is a valuable credential that is designed to validate the candidates' skills and knowledge level. The CIC certification exam is one of the high in demand industrial recognized credentials to prove your skills and knowledge level. With the CBIC CIC Certification Exam everyone can upgrade their skills and become competitive and updated in the market.

CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Sample Questions (Q152-Q157):

NEW QUESTION # 152
As part of their antimicrobial stewardship initiative, Hospital A is using a qualitative study to assess their program. What type of data will be collected using this approach?

A. Reproducible
B. Reliable
C. Numeric
D. Subjective

Answer: D

Explanation:
Qualitative studiesfocus on collectingsubjective data, including personal narratives, observations, and experiences. These data arenot numeric, and instead aim to explore themes and meaning from contextual, non-quantifiable information.
* From theAPIC Text:
"Qualitative methods... Measures or data: Subjective, Unique, Differs over time, sample, and context." References:
APIC Text, 4th Edition, Chapter 19 - Qualitative Research Methods

NEW QUESTION # 153
A patient with pertussis can be removed from Droplet Precautions after

A. direct fluorescent antibody and/or culture are negative.
B. the paroxysmal stage has ended.
C. the patient has been given pertussis vaccine.
D. five days of appropriate antibiotic therapy.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A patient with pertussis (whooping cough) should remain on Droplet Precautions to prevent transmission.
According to APIC guidelines, patients with pertussis can be removed from Droplet Precautions after completing at least five days of appropriate antimicrobial therapy and showing clinical improvement.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?
* A. Direct fluorescent antibody and/or culture are negative - Laboratory results may not always detect pertussis early, and false negatives can occur.
* C. The patient has been given pertussis vaccine - The vaccine prevents but does not treat pertussis, and it does not shorten the period of contagiousness.
* D. The paroxysmal stage has ended - The paroxysmal stage (severe coughing fits) can last weeks, but infectiousness decreases with antibiotics.
CBIC Infection Control Reference
According to APIC guidelines, Droplet Precautions should continue until the patient has received at least five days of antimicrobial therapy.

NEW QUESTION # 154
Which of the following statements characterizes the proper use of chemical disinfectants?

A. The label on the solution being used must indicate that it kills all viable micro-organisms.
B. A chemical indicator must be used with items undergoing high-level disinfection.
C. The solution should be adaptable for use as an antiseptic.
D. All items to be processed must be cleaned prior to being submerged in solution.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The proper use of chemical disinfectants is a critical aspect of infection control, as outlined by the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC). Chemical disinfectants are used to eliminate or reduce pathogenic microorganisms on inanimate objects, and their effective application requires adherence to specific protocols to ensure safety and efficacy. Let's evaluate each option based on infection control standards:
* A. All items to be processed must be cleaned prior to being submerged in solution.: This statement is a fundamental principle of disinfectant use. Cleaning (e.g., removing organic material such as blood, tissue, or dirt) is a prerequisite before disinfection because organic matter can inactivate or reduce the effectiveness of chemical disinfectants. The CBIC emphasizes that proper cleaning is the first step in the disinfection process to ensure that disinfectants can reach and kill microorganisms. This step is universally required for all levels of disinfection (low, intermediate, and high), making it a characterizing feature of proper use.
* B. The label on the solution being used must indicate that it kills all viable micro-organisms.: This statement is misleading. No disinfectant can be guaranteed to kill 100% of all viable microorganisms under all conditions, as efficacy depends on factors like contact time, concentration, and the presence of organic material. Disinfectant labels typically indicate the types of microorganisms (e.g., bacteria, viruses, fungi) and the level of disinfection (e.g., high-level, intermediate-level) they are effective against, based on standardized tests (e.g., EPA or FDA guidelines). Claiming that a solution kills all viable microorganisms is unrealistic and not a requirement for proper use; instead, the label must specify the intended use and efficacy, which varies by product.
* C. The solution should be adaptable for use as an antiseptic.: An antiseptic is a chemical agent used on living tissue (e.g., skin) to reduce microbial load, whereas a disinfectant is used on inanimate surfaces.
While some chemicals (e.g., alcohol) can serve both purposes, this is not a requirement for proper disinfectant use. The adaptability of a solution for antiseptic use is irrelevant to its classification or application as a disinfectant, which focuses on environmental or equipment decontamination. This statement does not characterize proper disinfectant use.
* D. A chemical indicator must be used with items undergoing high-level disinfection.: Chemical indicators (e.g., test strips or tapes) are used to verify that the disinfection process has met certain parameters (e.g., concentration or exposure time), particularly in sterilization or high-level disinfection (HLD). While this is a recommended practice for quality assurance in HLD (e.g., with glutaraldehyde or hydrogen peroxide), it is not a universal requirement for all chemical disinfectant use. HLD applies specifically to semi-critical items (e.g., endoscopes), and the need for indicators depends on the protocol and facility standards. This statement is too narrow and specific to characterize the proper use of chemical disinfectants broadly.
The correct answer is A, as cleaning prior to disinfection is a foundational and universally applicable step in the proper use of chemical disinfectants. This aligns with CBIC guidelines, which stress the importance of a clean surface to maximize disinfectant efficacy and prevent infection transmission in healthcare settings.
References:
* CBIC Infection Prevention and Control (IPC) Core Competency Model (updated 2023), Domain IV:
Environment of Care, which mandates cleaning as a prerequisite for effective disinfection.
* CBIC Examination Content Outline, Domain III: Prevention and Control of Infectious Diseases, which includes protocols for the proper use of disinfectants, emphasizing pre-cleaning.
* CDC Guidelines for Disinfection and Sterilization in Healthcare Facilities (2021), which reinforce that cleaning must precede disinfection to ensure efficacy.

NEW QUESTION # 155
A team was created to determine what has contributed to the recent increase in catheter associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs). What quality tool should the team use?

A. Gap analysis
B. Plan, do, study, act (PDSA)
C. Fishbone diagram
D. Failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA)

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is B, "Fishbone diagram," as this is the most appropriate quality tool for the team to use when determining what has contributed to the recent increase in catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs). According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, the fishbone diagram, also known as an Ishikawa or cause-and-effect diagram, is a structured tool used to identify and categorize potential causes of a problem. In this case, the team needs to explore the root causes of the CAUTI increase, which could include factors such as improper catheter insertion techniques, inadequate maintenance, staff training gaps, or environmental issues (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II:
Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competency 2.2 - Analyze surveillance data). The fishbone diagram organizes these causes into categories (e.g., people, process, equipment, environment), facilitating a comprehensive analysis and guiding further investigation or intervention.
Option A (gap analysis) is useful for comparing current performance against a desired standard or benchmark, but it is more suited for identifying deficiencies in existing processes rather than uncovering the specific causes of a recent increase. Option C (plan, do, study, act [PDSA]) is a cyclical quality improvement methodology for testing and implementing changes, which would be relevant after identifying causes and designing interventions, not as the initial tool for root cause analysis. Option D (failure mode and effect analysis [FMEA]) is a proactive risk assessment tool used to predict and mitigate potential failures in a process before they occur, making it less applicable to analyzing an existing increase in CAUTIs.
The use of a fishbone diagram aligns with CBIC's emphasis on using data-driven tools to investigate and address healthcare-associated infections (HAIs) like CAUTIs, supporting the team's goal of pinpointing contributory factors (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competency 2.3 - Identify risk factors for healthcare-associated infections). This tool's visual and collaborative nature also fosters team engagement, which is essential for effective problem-solving in infection prevention.
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competencies 2.2 - Analyze surveillance data, 2.3 - Identify risk factors for healthcare-associated infections.

NEW QUESTION # 156
To understand how their hospital-acquired infection rates compare to other health care settings, an infection preventionist (IP) plans to use benchmarking.
Which of the following criteria is important to ensure accurate benchmarking of surveillance data?

A. Using case definitions that are adjusted for the patient population being studied
B. Denominator rates are selected based on an organizational risk assessment
C. Collecting data on a small population lo ensure accuracy of data collection
D. Data collectors are trained on how to collect data

Answer: A

Explanation:
Benchmarking compares infection rates across healthcare facilities. For accurate benchmarking, case definitions must be standardized and adjusted for patient demographics, severity of illness, and other risk factors.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?
* A. Data collectors are trained on how to collect data - Training is necessary, but it does not directly ensure comparability between facilities.
* B. Collecting data on a small population - A larger sample size increases accuracy and reliability in benchmarking.
* C. Denominator rates selected based on an organizational risk assessment - Risk assessment is important, but standardized case definitions are critical for comparison.
CBIC Infection Control Reference
According to APIC, accurate benchmarking relies on using standardized case definitions that account for differences in patient populations.

NEW QUESTION # 157
......

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