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CSC2 Pass-Sure Braindumps: Canadian Securities Course Exam2 & CSC2 Exam Guide

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CSI Canadian Securities Course Exam2 Sample Questions (Q100-Q105):

NEW QUESTION # 100
What do technical analysis and fundamental analysis have in common?

A. They are nullifiedaaccording to the random walk theory.
B. They are used to predict changes in security prices.
C. They compare the intrinsic value against a security's current price.
D. They study the causes of security' s price movements.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Bothtechnical analysisandfundamental analysisare tools used to predict changes in security prices, but they differ significantly in their approaches.
* Fundamental Analysisevaluates the intrinsic value of a security by analyzing factors such as a company's financial statements, industry conditions, and macroeconomic trends. It assumes that market prices will eventually reflect a security's true value.
* Technical Analysisexamines historical price and volume data to predict future price movements. It focuses on identifying patterns, trends, and market sentiment without regard to the underlying fundamentals.
Option A is incorrect because it only describes fundamental analysis. Option B erroneously connects both methodologies to the random walk theory, which discounts their effectiveness. Option D misstates their purpose, as technical analysis focuses on price trends, not the causes of price movements.
References:
* Volume 2, Chapter 13: Fundamental and Technical Analysis, Overview of Fundamental and Technical Analysis,Canadian Securities Course.

NEW QUESTION # 101
What is the difference between sinking funds and purchase funds concerning the redemption of bonds poor to maturity?

A. Sinking funds have mandated redemptions while purchase funds can redeem only upon certain market conditions.
B. Sinking funds can redeem fie bones any time while purchase funds follow a prearranged schedule.
C. Sinking funds involve the issuer determining when bonds are redeemed while purchase funds Involve the investor determining when the bonds are redeemed.
D. Sinking funds can redeem bonds only if they trade below a stipulated price while purchase runes do not have such a requirement.

Answer: A

Explanation:
* Sinking fundsrequire the issuer to redeem a specified portion of the bond issue at regular intervals. This ensures systematic debt reduction and is mandated regardless of market conditions.
* Purchase funds, however, allow the issuer to buy back bonds only if they are available in the market at or below a stipulated price, making redemption conditional on market conditions.
* B. Sinking funds can redeem bonds only if they trade below a stipulated price: This applies to purchase funds, not sinking funds.
* C. Sinking funds involve the issuer determining when bonds are redeemed while purchase funds involve the investor determining when the bonds are redeemed: Investors have no role in determining bond redemption under either method.
* D. Sinking funds can redeem the bonds any time while purchase funds follow a prearranged schedule:
Sinking funds follow a schedule, and purchase funds rely on market conditions.

NEW QUESTION # 102
What is the normal shape of a yield curve?

A. Upward slops
B. Humped
C. inverted
D. Downward slope

Answer: A

Explanation:
The normal shape of a yield curve is anupward slope, indicating that longer-term bonds offer higher yields than shorter-term bonds. This reflects the additional risk and time value of money associated with longer maturities.
* A. Downward slope: This could describe a yield curve during unusual circumstances, such as a period of market uncertainty or deflation.
* B. Inverted: An inverted yield curve, where shorter-term yields exceed longer-term yields, is a rare occurrence and often signals economic recession.
* D. Humped: A humped curve is rare and occurs when intermediate-term yields exceed both short-term and long-term yields.

NEW QUESTION # 103
What type of return is calculated for a security held for 18 months if no adjustments to the return are made?

A. Effective rate of return.
B. Holding period return.
C. Nominal rate of return.
D. Annualized total return.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The return on a security held for a specific period, such as 18 months, without adjusting for time or compounding, is referred to as theholding period return (HPR). This straightforward calculation assesses total returns over the period of ownership.
1. Definition of Holding Period Return:The HPR is calculated as:
HPR=(Ending Value - Initial Value) + Dividends ReceivedInitial ValueHPR = rac{{ ext{(Ending Value - Initial Value) + Dividends Received}}}{{ ext{Initial Value}}}HPR=Initial Value (Ending Value - Initial Value) + Dividends Received This measure evaluates total growth, disregarding compounding or annualization.
2. Other Return Types (Incorrect Answers):
* Effective Rate of Return:Reflects annualized returns considering compounding within a year. It is not applicable to non-annualized periods like 18 months.
* Nominal Rate of Return:The unadjusted rate of return without accounting for inflation. While related, it does not specifically refer to the holding period concept.
* Annualized Total Return:This adjusts returns to reflect an annual basis, assuming constant performance throughout the period. It is unsuitable for raw, unadjusted returns like the HPR.
References from CSC Study Documents:
* Chapter 15, Volume 2: Covers the calculation of different return metrics, with detailed examples of HPR and its application.
* Portfolio Return Analysis inSection 15explains the non-compounded nature of holding period calculations.
Let me know if further details or clarifications are needed!

NEW QUESTION # 104
Which ratio gauges a company's ability to repay its debts using funds generated from operating activities?

A. Asset coverage.
B. Debt-to-equity
C. Interest coverage.
D. Cash flow-to-total debt

Answer: D

Explanation:
Thecash flow-to-total debt ratioassesses a company's ability to repay its debts using cash generated from its operating activities. It is calculated by dividing operating cash flow by total debt. A higher ratio indicates better capacity to cover debts. This metric is crucial for evaluating financial health and understanding a firm's liquidity position. Other ratios listed have different focuses:
* Interest coverage(B) measures a company's ability to pay interest with operating income.
* Asset coverage(C) measures the protection provided to creditors.
* Debt-to-equity(D) evaluates capital structure but not immediate debt repayment ability.
References
* CSC Volume 2, Chapter 14:Company Analysis - Risk Analysis Ratios, p. 14-12 to 14-16.

NEW QUESTION # 105
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Dan Cole Dan Cole

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