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CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Sample Questions (Q57-Q62):

NEW QUESTION # 57
The coupon on a bond has been expressed in real terms, rather than as a nominal amount. This is because:

A. It is an inflation-linked bond
B. It is a bearer bond
C. Its redemption date is longer than 10 years
D. It is an unsecured instrument

Answer: A

Explanation:
* Real vs. Nominal Terms:
* Inflation-linked bonds adjust their coupon payments and principal based on inflation rates.
* Expressing the coupon in real terms ensures it reflects purchasing power rather than face value.
* Elimination of Other Options:
* B: Redemption date length is unrelated to coupon expression.
* C & D: Security type (unsecured/bearer) does not dictate coupon terms.
References:
* ICWIM Module 3: Explanation of bond types, including inflation-linked securities.

NEW QUESTION # 58
For what reason is holding bearer shares potentially disadvantageous?

A. Investors prefer not being publicly named on a share register
B. The loss of the certificate might equal loss of the person's investment
C. They are more difficult to value
D. Because it is not possible to sell part of the holding

Answer: B

Explanation:
Bearer shares are physical certificates that grant ownership, and the rights to those shares are with the bearer.
If the certificate is lost or stolen, the investment could effectively be unrecoverable since ownership cannot be traced back to the investor.
* Not being publicly named (A): This is an advantage of bearer shares, not a disadvantage.
* Difficulty in valuation (C): Bearer shares' value is similar to registered shares based on market conditions.
* Impossible to sell part (D): Fractional transactions can still occur with bearer shares.
References:
* International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management: Risks associated with different forms of equity ownership.
* Legal frameworks around bearer shares and their potential misuse in financial systems.

NEW QUESTION # 59
Performance attribution analysis attempts to explain why a portfolio had a certain return. It does so by breaking down the performance and attributing the results based on the decisions made by the fund manager on which of the following?

A. Asset allocation and sector choice only
B. Asset allocation alone
C. The combination of asset allocation, sector choice, security selection, and risk analysis
D. The combination of asset allocation, sector choice, and security selection

Answer: D

Explanation:
Performance attribution analysis evaluates the performance of a portfolio by breaking it into components attributed to specific investment decisions. These include:
* Asset Allocation: The decision on the proportion of the portfolio allocated to different asset classes (e.
g., stocks, bonds).
* Sector Choice: Selecting specific sectors (e.g., technology, healthcare) within asset classes.
* Security Selection: Choosing individual securities within the selected sectors.
Risk analysis, while critical for investment management, is not typically part of standard performance attribution frameworks.
References:
* International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management: Portfolio performance evaluation section.
* Standard attribution models: Brinson, Hood, and Beebower model widely used in performance attribution.

NEW QUESTION # 60
An economy with two consecutive quarters of negative growth is considered to be in what phase of an economic cycle?

A. Inflationary
B. Slump
C. Recession
D. Depression

Answer: C

Explanation:
* Definition of Recession:
* A recession is defined as two consecutive quarters of negative GDP growth, indicating a sustained economic downturn.
* It reflects reduced consumer spending, higher unemployment, and lower production.
* Elimination of Other Options:
* B (Slump): A slump is a more general term and not a specific phase.
* C (Depression): Refers to prolonged and severe economic downturns.
* D (Inflationary): Opposite of the scenario described.
References:
* ICWIM Module 1: Explanation of economic cycles and recession indicators.

NEW QUESTION # 61
What term is used to describe a situation where clients give investment instructions to a firm without being given advice to do so?

A. Execution-only
B. Discretionary
C. Non-discretionary
D. Robo-advice

Answer: A

Explanation:
Execution-only trading refers to transactions where the firm executes trades without providing financial advice.
* Why is Option B Correct?
* The client makes all investment decisions independently.
* The financial firm does not assess suitability or risk tolerance.
* Common in DIY investing platforms (e.g., stockbrokers, online trading apps).
* Why Not Other Options?
* A (Discretionary) # The firm manages investments without client approval for each trade.
* C (Non-discretionary) # The firm provides advice, but the client makes the final decision.
* D (Robo-advice) # Automated investment platforms provide algorithm-based recommendations.
# Reference: FCA Conduct of Business Rules (COBS 10), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.

NEW QUESTION # 62
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Cameron Gray Cameron Gray

Biography

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